Post number #692410, ID: 23991e
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there are infinite numbers between 0 and 1, and yet we know that after 0 is 1, which makes the numbers between those two numbers not infinite, because we know at some point, it'll end at 1.
what can we make out of this?
Post number #692442, ID: 03084d
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between any two different points in space (or time), there is always another point. Without this assumption there are only a finite number of distances between two points, hence there is no infinite sequence of movements, and the paradox is resolved.
Post number #692476, ID: 931deb
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Yay
Post number #692661, ID: d95009
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Infinites and small brains don't go well together
Post number #692663, ID: 04da14
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Math isn't real
Post number #692727, ID: b788c6
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Wait until you find out that 0.99999999... that goes on infinitely is equal to 1
Post number #692731, ID: 157617
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>>692410 1 being "after" (greater than ?) 0 doesn't mean the number of real numbers between 0 and 1 is finite.
No real numbers sit "next to" each other...
Post number #692761, ID: 337f74
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Google ℵ0. It'll blow your mind.
Post number #692812, ID: e9ccea
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a = b
Multiply both sides by a to get a2 = ab
Subtract b2 from both sides to get a2 - b2 = ab - b2
Factor the left side to get (a + b)(a - b) and factor out b from the right side to get b(a - b). (a + b)(a - b) = b(a - b)
Since (a - b) appears on both sides, we can cancel it to get: a + b = b
Since a = b we can substitute b in for a to get b + b = b
Combining the two terms on the left gives us 2b = b
Since b appears on both sides, we can divide through by b to get 2 = 1
Post number #692818, ID: e1bf46
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>>692812 weee ok let's not divide by zero another time plz _(._.)_
Total number of posts: 10,
last modified on:
Fri Jan 1 00:00:00 1598638315
| there are infinite numbers between 0 and 1, and yet we know that after 0 is 1, which makes the numbers between those two numbers not infinite, because we know at some point, it'll end at 1.
what can we make out of this?